BIBLICAL BRIEFS 89
This verse has become a weapon against women in the church. Because we often read Bible with a chapter and verse mentality, not in context and unintegrated with the overall view of the Bible, we make it say what it, unfortunately, does not say. One of the most important exegetical principles is that Scripture explains Scripture. If this single verse totally contradicts other passages in the Bible, we have misinterpreted the verse and we definitely have to investigate it on a deeper level. We always need to take into account the cultural context of the time it was written in. The letter to the Corinthians was not written in a vacuum. There were several serious moral and social problems in the congregation which Paul had to address, also doctrinal matters, as well as offering guidelines on the foundations of faith. All of this had to be done within an active and critical contingent of Jewish Christians who still wanted to function within the framework of Judaism. Observing the law, practicing circumcision and the role of women in the congregation were some of the urgent issues of that time. But considering all this, with regard to your question, it is important that we ought to read the New Testament statement more universally, outside of this time context, especially if Paul clarifies it when he says “they are not allowed” and even add, “as the Law says”. In this context, it seems to be a firm principle that women must be silent and never speak in the congregation. Yet this is in total contradiction with the functioning of women in the ecclesia, their involvement and functioning in the fivefold ministry in the territorial church of the time, if we look at the history of women such as Lydia, the women of Berea, Priscilla, the four daughters of Philip, Fébé (possibly an elder), Judean (an apostle), Maria, Triféna and Trifósa, the house church leader Chloë … Women could boldly pray, prophesy and praise in the church (1Cor. 11:5)! A major part of our problem in the interpretation of these two problematic verses is that we often study the Scriptures in isolation. What stands out when one studies these two verses in a broader context, is that the issue is not on women, but in regards to prophecy, speaking in tongues and the interpretation thereof as prophetic word, and the order which it should take place within the congregation – this is the theme under scrutiny! It is important to note in verse 34 that not only women are asked to be quiet; in verses 30 and 31 it is explicitly stated that ALL must be silent during the orderly procedure in which prophetic word is being judged and evaluated. The essence of this spiritual law is found in verse 32: “The spirits of the prophets are subject to the prophets.” It simply means that not even prophetic word may disrupt the order of the congregation. The subsequent verses’ statements are not in regards to women in general, but about women whose husbands are involved in the prophecies and the judgement thereof, and who would interfere by giving their own opinion as well. Paul says that these women should be quiet, as the rest of the congregation must also be silent when others speak (verse 30). Charles Trombley paraphrases this section enlightening as follows: “Do not ask your prophet husbands questions during the time he judges prophecy. If you have any questions ask him at home. Do not cause confusion during the service.” Concerning the last part of the verse in the above-mentioned question – what does the Old Covenant then mean by stating that women should be quiet “as the Law says”? The traditional Jewish thought pattern and framework regarded women as inferior and oppressed, largely due to laws and interpretations made by Jewish men. In Apion II Josephus writes: “The woman, says the law, is inferior to the man. Let hem therefore be submissive.” What is proposed as the law is merely human tradition, not the law determined by God. All Jewish requirements for the submissiveness of women derive from sources in the Mishnas (the rabbis own commentary and interpretation of the Torah) and certainly not the Old Testament. The lexicographer J.F. Schleusner confirms the phrase ‘as the law also says’ as follows: “The expression ‘as also saith the law’ refers to the Oral Law of the Jews now called the Talmud.” This verse, therefore, says exactly the opposite than how it has been interpreted throughout the ages!
Dr Tom Gouws